Comprehensive MCQs for Mastering Autoimmune Diseases and Disorders: Your Ultimate Study Guide

 15 confirm MCQS from the following ( Tutor physcology says)
all topics covered 56 MCQs.

MCQs Topics:

·         Multiple Sclerosis (571)

·         Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (572)

·         Graves' Disease

·         Inflammatory Bowel Disease (572)

·         IgA Nephropathy (572-573)

·         Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (573)

·         Reactive Arthritis (572)

·         Rheumatoid Arthritis (573)

·         Rheumatic Fever (573)

         Multiple sclerosis:

 

1. Which cells are primarily responsible for the demyelination in multiple sclerosis?

    A. B cells and neutrophils

    B. Autoreactive T cells and activated macrophages

    C. Natural killer cells and dendritic cells

    D. Basophils and eosinophils

 

2. What is thought to be the trigger that stimulates the autoreactive T cells in multiple sclerosis?

    A. Bacterial infection

    B. Viral infection

    C. Fungal infection

    D. Parasitic infection

 

3. Which virus's polymerase is suspected to be a trigger for multiple sclerosis?

    A. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

    B. Epstein–Barr Virus (EBV)

    C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

    D. Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)

 

4. Individuals with certain alleles in which region have an increased risk of contracting multiple sclerosis?

    A. HLAA

    B. HLAB

    C. HLADR

    D. HLAC

 

5. How do the clinical findings in multiple sclerosis typically present?

    A. They remain constant over time

    B. They wax and wane

    C. They appear suddenly and then resolve completely

    D. They are limited to motor functions only

 

6. Which imaging technique is used to reveal plaques in the white matter of the brain in multiple sclerosis patients?

    A. Computed Tomography (CT) Scan

    B. Xray

    C. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

    D. Ultrasound

 

7. What is typically found in the spinal fluid of most multiple sclerosis patients?

    A. Elevated glucose levels

    B. Oligoclonal bands of IgG

    C. High red blood cell count

    D. Increased chloride levels

 

8. Which of the following is NOT an immunosuppressive drug used to reduce the severity of symptoms in multiple sclerosis?

    A. Prednisone

    B. Methotrexate

    C. Beta interferon

    D. Penicillin

 

 Answers

1. B. Autoreactive T cells and activated macrophages

2. B. Viral infection

3. B. Epstein–Barr Virus (EBV)

4. C. HLADR

5. B. They wax and wane

6. C. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

7. B. Oligoclonal bands of IgG

8. D. Penicillin

 

 

insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM):

 

1. In insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM), which cells are destroyed by autoreactive T cells?

    A. Liver cells

    B. Islet cells of the pancreas

    C. Kidney cells

    D. Neurons

 

2. What is the main antigen against which the Tell attack is directed in IDDM?

    A. Insulin

    B. Glutamic acid decarboxylase

    C. Hemoglobin

    D. Myelin basic protein

 

3. Which virus has been shown to be a trigger of IDDM in mice?

    A. Epstein Barr virus

    B. Influenza virus

    C. Coxsackie virus B4

    D. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

 

4. What is the significance of the six amino acid sequence in the context of IDDM?

    A. It is common between insulin and hemoglobin

    B. It is found in the insulin receptor

    C. It is common between a Coxsackie virus protein and glutamic acid decarboxylase

    D. It is unique to beta cells

 

5. Which type of immune response is primarily responsible for the major damage in IDDM?

    A. Antibody mediated

    B. Tell mediated

    C. Complement mediated

    D. Phagocyte mediated

 

6. Apart from Tell attack, what other immune response is present in IDDM?

    A. Production of antibodies against various antigens of the beta cells

    B. Production of antibodies against liver cells

    C. Production of antibodies against nerve cells

    D. Production of antibodies against muscle cells

 

7. Has infection with Coxsackie virus B4 been established as a cause of IDDM in humans?

    A. Yes, it has been definitively proven

    B. No, it has not been established

    C. Only in specific populations

    D. Only in adults

 

 Answers

1. B. Islet cells of the pancreas

2. B. Glutamic acid decarboxylase

3. C. Coxsackie virus B4

4. C. It is common between a Coxsackie virus protein and glutamic acid decarboxylase

5. B. Tell mediated

6. A. Production of antibodies against various antigens of the beta cells

7. B. No, it has not been established

 

 

Inflammatory bowel disease (Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis):

 

1. What are the primary symptoms of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

    A. Fever and chills

    B. Diarrhea and crampy lower abdominal pain

    C. Headache and dizziness

    D. Cough and shortness of breath

 

2. Which part of the gastrointestinal tract is primarily affected in Crohn’s disease?

    A. Stomach

    B. Ileum

    C. Esophagus

    D. Rectum

 

3. Which part of the gastrointestinal tract is primarily affected in ulcerative colitis?

    A. Ileum

    B. Colon

    C. Duodenum

    D. Jejunum

 

4. What is thought to cause the chronic inflammation in inflammatory bowel disease?

    A. An abnormal immune response to the presence of normal flora of the bowel

    B. A viral infection

    C. A bacterial infection

    D. An allergic reaction to food

 

5. Which type of helper T cell is involved in the pathogenesis of inflammatory bowel disease?

    A. Th1

    B. Th2

    C. Th17

    D. Th9

 

6. Which cytokine is implicated in the pathogenesis of inflammatory bowel disease?

    A. IL4

    B. IL23

    C. IL10

    D. IL2

 

7. Which monoclonal antibody is effective in inducing remission in active Crohn’s disease?

    A. Infliximab

    B. Adalimumab

    C. Natalizumab

    D. Rituximab

 

8. Natalizumab is a monoclonal antibody against which molecule?

    A. TNF alpha

    B. CD20

    C. αintegrin

    D. IL6

 

9. Which symptom is more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis than with Crohn’s disease?

    A. Bloody diarrhea

    B. Constipation

    C. Nausea

    D. Weight loss

 

10. Which type of inflammatory bowel disease is more likely to affect the ileum?

     A. Ulcerative colitis

     B. Crohn’s disease

     C. Both affect the ileum equally

     D. Neither affects the ileum

 

 Answers

1. B. Diarrhea and crampy lower abdominal pain

2. B. Ileum

3. B. Colon

4. A. An abnormal immune response to the presence of normal flora of the bowel

5. C. Th17

6. B. IL23

7. C. Natalizumab

8. C. αintegrin

9. A. Bloody diarrhea

10. B. Crohn’s disease

 

IgA nephropathy:

 

 MCQs:

 

1. IgA nephropathy is characterized primarily by which symptom?

    A. Hypertension

    B. Hematuria

    C. Edema

    D. Polyuria

 

2. What additional symptom, besides hematuria, can occur in IgA nephropathy?

    A. Jaundice

    B. Proteinuria

    C. Hypotension

    D. Hyperglycemia

 

3. IgA nephropathy can potentially progress to which condition?

    A. Cirrhosis

    B. End stage renal disease

    C. Diabetes

    D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

 

4. What is found lining the glomeruli in IgA nephropathy?

    A. Lipid deposits

    B. Immune complexes containing IgA

    C. Amyloid plaques

    D. Calcium deposits

 

5. IgA nephropathy is often temporally related to which type of infections?

    A. Skin infections

    B. Pharyngitis

    C. Urinary tract infections

    D. Gastroenteritis

 

6. Has a specific virus been identified as a cause of IgA nephropathy?

    A. Yes, Epstein Barr virus

    B. Yes, Coxsackie virus

    C. No specific virus has been identified

    D. Yes, Influenza virus

 

7. What treatment has been tried for IgA nephropathy with variable results?

    A. Steroids

    B. Fish oil

    C. Antibiotics

    D. Antiviral medication

 

8. Which of the following statements is true about the treatment regimen for IgA nephropathy?

    A. A clearly effective treatment regimen exists

    B. No treatment regimen is clearly effective

    C. Chemotherapy is the primary treatment

    D. Radiation therapy is commonly used

 

 Answers

1. B. Hematuria

2. B. Proteinuria

3. B. End stage renal disease

4. B. Immune complexes containing IgA

5. B. Pharyngitis

6. C. No specific virus has been identified

7. B. Fish oil

8. B. No treatment regimen is clearly effective

 

 

Rheumatoid arthritis

 

 MCQs:

 

1. What autoantibody is formed in rheumatoid arthritis?

    A. AntiDNA antibody

    B. Rheumatoid factor

    C. Anticitrullinated peptide antibody

    D. Antithyroid antibody

 

2. Rheumatoid factor is typically of which immunoglobulin class?

    A. IgA

    B. IgD

    C. IgG

    D. IgM

 

3. Which gene is associated with a predisposition to rheumatoid arthritis?

    A. HLAB27

    B. HLADR3

    C. HLADR4

    D. HLAA2

 

4. Which demographic is primarily affected by rheumatoid arthritis?

    A. Men between the ages of 20 and 40 years

    B. Women between the ages of 30 and 50 years

    C. Children under 10 years old

    D. Elderly over 65 years old

 

5. Which cells and cytokines are commonly found in the inflamed synovial membrane in rheumatoid arthritis?

    A. B cells, IL4, IL5

    B. T cells, plasma cells, macrophages; TNF, IL1, IL6

    C. Neutrophils, IL2, IL8

    D. Mast cells, IL10, IL12

 

6. What is the main clinical finding in rheumatoid arthritis?

    A. Inflammation of large joints like hips and shoulders

    B. Inflammation of the small joints of the hands and feet

    C. Inflammation of the spine

    D. Inflammation of the jaw

 

7. Which diagnostic test supports the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?

    A. Antibody to Epstein Barr virus

    B. Rheumatoid factor in the serum

    C. Antibody to Coxsackie virus

    D. Antibody to Helicobacter pylori

 

8. What is the main function of etanercept (Enbrel) in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

    A. Inhibits B cell proliferation

    B. Neutralizes TNF

    C. Blocks IL2 receptor

    D. Reduces IL10 production

 

9. What combination is etanercept particularly effective with in treating rheumatoid arthritis?

    A. Aspirin

    B. Methotrexate

    C. Corticosteroids

    D. NSAIDs

 

10. Which drug is a fusion protein composed of CTLA4 and a fragment of the Fc domain of human IgG used in rheumatoid arthritis treatment?

     A. Tocilizumab (Actemra)

     B. Infliximab (Remicade)

     C. Adalimumab (Humira)

     D. Abatacept (Orencia)

 

 Answers:

 

1. B. Rheumatoid factor

2. D. IgM

3. C. HLADR4

4. B. Women between the ages of 30 and 50 years

5. B. T cells, plasma cells, macrophages; TNF, IL1, IL6

6. B. Inflammation of the small joints of the hands and feet

7. B. Rheumatoid factor in the serum

8. B. Neutralizes TNF

9. B. Methotrexate

10. D. Abatacept (Orencia)

 

 

Rheumatic Fever

 

1. Which type of infection regularly precedes the development of rheumatic fever?

    A. Staphylococcal infections

    B. Group A streptococcal infections

    C. Viral infections

    D. Fungal infections

 

2. Which bacterial protein do antibodies target in rheumatic fever?

    A. Protein A

    B. M protein

    C. Protein G

    D. Protein H

 

3. Which of the following tissues is NOT typically affected by cross-reactive antibodies in rheumatic fever?

    A. Cardiac muscle

    B. Joint tissue

    C. Brain tissue

    D. Liver tissue

 

4. What is the main pathogenetic mechanism of rheumatic fever?

    A. Direct bacterial invasion of tissues

    B. Antibodies against group A streptococci cross-reacting with host tissues

    C. Release of bacterial toxins

    D. Viral coinfection

 

5. Which specific component of cardiac muscle is targeted by cross-reactive antibodies in rheumatic fever?

    A. Actin

    B. Myosin

    C. Troponin

    D. Titin

 

 Answers:

1. B. Group A streptococcal infections

2. B. M protein

3. D. Liver tissue

4. B. Antibodies against group A streptococci cross-reacting with host tissues

5. B. Myosin

 

 

SYSTEMIC LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSUS (SLE)

 

1. What are the hallmark autoantibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

    A. Antibodies against single stranded DNA

    B. Antibodies against double stranded DNA

    C. Antibodies against cell membrane proteins

    D. Antibodies against cytoplasmic proteins

 

2. Which genes are associated with an increased risk of developing systemic lupus erythematosus?

    A. HLADR1 and HLADR4

    B. HLADR2 and HLADR3

    C. HLAA1 and HLAA2

    D. HLAB27 and HLAB8

 

3. Which of the following drugs are known to cause systemic lupus erythematosus?

    A. Ibuprofen and acetaminophen

    B. Procainamide and hydralazine

    C. Methotrexate and azathioprine

    D. Penicillin and amoxicillin

 

4. What is the characteristic rash seen in systemic lupus erythematosus caused by?

    A. Direct viral infection

    B. Immune complex deposition

    C. Bacterial toxin release

    D. Fungal infection

 

5. Which type of antibodies cause anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia in systemic lupus erythematosus?

    A. Cytotoxic antibodies

    B. Antibodies against double stranded DNA

    C. Antibodies against single stranded RNA

    D. Antibodies against histones

 

6. How is the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus supported?

    A. Detection of antiphospholipid antibodies with immunofluorescence

    B. Detection of antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) with fluorescent antibody tests

    C. Detection of anticitrullinated protein antibodies with ELISA

    D. Detection of rheumatoid factors with immunoassays

 

7. Which component is NOT found in the immune complexes deposited in the glomeruli in systemic lupus erythematosus?

    A. IgG

    B. IgM

    C. C3 component of complement

    D. Fibrinogen

 

8. What treatment options are commonly used for systemic lupus erythematosus?

    A. Antibiotics and antiviral drugs

    B. Antifungal drugs and immune checkpoint inhibitors

    C. Aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and corticosteroids

    D. Antihistamines and proton pump inhibitors

 

 Answers:

1. B. Antibodies against double stranded DNA

2. B. HLADR2 and HLADR3

3. B. Procainamide and hydralazine

4. B. Immune complex deposition

5. A. Cytotoxic antibodies

6. B. Detection of antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) with fluorescent antibody tests

7. D. Fibrinogen

8. C. Aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and corticosteroids

15 confirm because Mam is Chat......g......p......t     Addicted